MCQ-General Microbiology
1.
Cell wall synthesis
during cell growth involves insertion of what material into the existing wall
material.
a.
DAP. b. Peptidoglycan.
c. bactoprenol. d. lipopolysaccharide.
2.
Heat stable proteins tend to have………. which probably
leads to more……..
a.
Hydrophilic cores / ionic dispersal of particles which
would normally cluster.
b.
Hydrophobic cores / "salt bridges" between
hydrophilic amino acids on the surface.
c.
Hydrophobic cores / ionic dispersal of particles which
would normally cluster.
d.
Hydrophilic cores / "salt bridges" between
hydrophilic amino acids on the surface.
3.
The significance of Hopanoids in the plasma membrane is that
a.
It selectively allows some molecules to pass into the
organism
b.
It prevents movement of molecules out of the organism
c.
It provides the elasticity to the membrane d. All of the above
4.
Arrange the following terms
in the order they would be found if you traveled from the cytoplasm to the
external medium of a Gram negative cell possessing a capsule:
1.
periplasmic space 2.
phospholipid bilayer of the outer membrane
3.
O-polysaccharide 4.
cytoplasmic membrane
5.
capsule
a.
4,3,1,2,5 b. 4,1,2,3,5
c. 5,2,3,1,4 d. 5,3,2,1,4
5.
Osmotolerant yeasts are able
to grow at high salt concentrations because their cytoplasm contains high
concentrations of
a.
High sodium ions
b.
Amino acids.
c.
Lipids. d. polyalcohols like glycerol
6.
Magnetosomes, glycogen,
polyphosphate and poly-beta-hydoxybutyric acid are all types of:
a.
Storage products.
b.
Cytoplasmic inclusions.
c.
Cell wall inclusions
d.
Both b and c
7.
Presence of sodium taulocholate in Mc Conkey agar makes
the media
a.
Differential media
b.
Basal media
c.
Selective media
d.
Enriched media
8.
What is the main function of central mesosome in Gram
positive bacteria?
a.
Site of protein synthesis.
b.
Transport of extracelluar enzymes outside the cell wall
c.
Taking part in cell division and DNA replication
d.
Protect the cell membrane from injuries
9.
The third amino acid in the peptidoglycan crosslinking
chain is either diaminopamilic acid or lysine because this amino acid must
a.
Be positively charged for a salt bridge to form.
b.
Be hydrophillic.
c.
Have a free amino group for peptide bond formation.
d.
Have a large R-side chain to fill space in the cell
wall.
10.
The outer membrane of Gram negative cells is more
permeable than the plasma membrane because
a.
LPS is larger than most membrane phospholipids.
b.
Lipoproteins stretch the outer membrane.
c.
Porin proteins establish holes in the outer membrane.
d.
The core polysaccharide spans the lipid bilayer.
11.
The bacterial capsule
a.
may be antigenic
b.
is required for cell
viability
c.
is involved in motility.
d.
may contribute to a
bacterium's pathogenicity
12.
Bacterial pili may enhance
virulence of bacterial pathogens by
a.
Transporting nutrients
b. providing a means of attachment
c. increasing
the surface area of bacteria.
d. being
an endotoxin
13.
An aquatic bacterium with a polysaccharide capsule for
attachment and virulence is
a.
Stella spp. b. Caulobacter spp.
c. Streptococcus
mutans d. Sphaerotilus natans
14.
Which of the following
statements about bacterial flagella is incorrect?
a.
The locomotion caused by
flagella can be directed to move cells toward a source of nutrients.
b.
The filaments are composed of
protein subunits called flagellin.
c.
The flagella move cells by
acting as propellers.
d.
All motile bacteria have
flagella
e.
Flagella increase in length
by adding new material to the tip not the base
15.
Transformation includes all of the following except
a.
Plasmids.
b.
Sex pili.
c.
Competent cell.
d.
Naked DNA.
16.
Hfr bacteria
a.
Are derived from F + bacteria.
b.
Functions as donor in crosses with F- bacteria
40°C.
c.
Functions as donor in crosses with F-
bacteria 40°C and are so called because they result in high frequency
recombination
d.
are so called because they result in high frequency
recombination
17.
Preserve foods by using salts and sugars
works by
a.
Depleting nutrients. b. Lowering osmotic pressure.
c. Creating
a hypertonic environment. d. Creating a hypotonic environment.
18.
Which one of the following forms of immunity to viruses
would be least likely to be life long?
a. Passive immunity b. Passive-active immunity
c. Active immunity d. Cell mediated immunity
19.
Which one of the following is not true for virus,
obligate intracellular parasites?
a.
Viruses cannot generate energy outside of cells
b.
Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside of cells
c.
Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain
nucleotides
d.
Enveloped viruses require host cell membrane to obtain
their envelopes
20.
Each of the following statement of lysogeny is correct
except
a.
Viral genes replicate independently of bacterial genes
b.
Viral genes responsible for lysis are repressed
c.
Viral DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA
d.
Some lysogenic phages encode toxins that cause human
disease
21.
The genome of rhabdoviruses
consists of a single-stranded RNA molecule whose sequence is complementary to
the RNA sequence which functions as a messenger RNA. How is the "+
sense" messenger RNA produced in cells infected by rhabdovirus?
a.
one portion of the infecting
RNA is directly translated by host cell ribosomes
b.
host cell RNA polymerase
activity
c.
reverse transcriptase
activity
d.
the infecting virus particle
contains an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
22.
An E. coli cell which
carries a lambda prophage is immune to a lytic infection by a second lambda
virus because:
a.
The second virus cannot inject its DNA
b.
proteins from the prophage's
lytic genetic program prevent replication of the second virus
c.
proteins from the prophage's
lysogenic genetic program prevent replication of the second virus
d.
the second virus cannot
adsorb to the cell
23.
Which of the following methods will not sterilize?
a.
500 mg/L ethylene oxide at 500C for 4 hours
b.
Dry heat at 1710C for 1 to 2 hours
c.
1210C at 15 lb/in pressure for 15 to 20
minutes
d.
1000C boiling water for 30 minutes
24.
Which of the following is bactericidal?
a.
Ionizing radiation b. Freeze-drying c. Deep
freezing
d. All
of these processes kill bacteria.
25.
Which of the following is most effective for
sterilizing mattresses and plastic Petri plates?
a.
Ethylene oxide b. Glutaraldehyde
c. Autoclave d. Ultraviolet radiation
Use
this information to answer the following question(s): Q. 26
|
||
|
Phenol Coefficient
|
|
Compound
|
Salmonella
typhi
|
Staphylococcus
aureus
|
Phenol
|
1
|
1
|
Cetylpyridinium
chloride
|
228
|
337
|
Hexachlorophene
|
5-15
|
15-40
|
Merthiolate
|
600
|
62.5
|
Ethanol
|
0.04
|
0.04
|
26.
Which disinfectant was the most effective against Salmonella?
a.
Phenol b. Cetylpyridinium chloride
c. Hexachlorophene d. Merthiolate
27.
If a 1:600 dilution of a test compound kills a standard
population of Staphylococcus aureus in 10 minutes but not 5 minutes
while a 1:60 dilution of phenol kills the population in the same time, what is
the phenol coefficient of the test compound?
a.
1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 50
28.
If a canning procedure is not properly followed, which
type of microbe is most likely to grow in the canned food?
a.
Acidophile b. Microaerophile
c. Mesophile d. Obligate Anaerobe
29.
The time required to kill 90% of the microorganisms in
a sample at a specific temperature is the
a.
Decimal reduction time. b. Thermal death temperature.
c. F
value. d. D value.
30.
UV radiation might be an effective way to disinfect
which of the following
a.
Contaminated hamburger. b. distilled water in quartz tube
c. paper
rapped glass wares d. a sealed box of soil.
31.
If 90% of the population of bacteria that had 106
CFU/ml are killed there will be ____ remaining CFU/ml.
a.
107 b. 9 x 105 c. 105 d. 10
Compare the following entities (I and II).
32.
I. The
percentage of cells killed by a procedure with a D100 value of 8 minutes
II. The
percentage of cells killed by a procedure with a D100 value of 5 minutes
a.
I is greater than II b. I is less than II
c I
is exactly or approximately equal to II.
d. I
may stand in more than one of the above relations to II
33. Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar
from 1.0 ml of sample withdrawn from solution diluted to 10-5 in a
standard plate count procedure. How many cells per ml were in the original
sample?
a.
3,600 b. 360,000 c. 1,800,000 d. 3,600,000
34.
A bacterial population increases from 103 to
109in 10 hours. What is the generation time of this culture?
a.
30 minutes b. 45 minutes c. 60
minutes
d. Not
enough information to determine the generation time
35.
The steady-state level of biomass in a continuous
culture is determined by:
a. the
volume of the culture vessel.
e.
the concentration of limiting substrate in the
culture vessel.
c. the concentration of limiting substrate in
the medium reservoir.
d. the dilution rate
36.
Which is the most SENSITIVE method of enumerating
microbes?
a.
turbidity measurement b. Direct microscopic count
c. viable
plate count d. dry weight basis
37.
A microbiology student noticed that a Fluid Thioglycollate
culture broth tube was very turbid at the surface and turbid throughout the
rest of the tube. She can conclude that the
a.
Broth is sterile. b. Organisms are aerobes.
c. Organisms
should be put in a candle jar. d. Organisms are facultative anaerobes.
38.
Arrange
the following techniques in order of increasing stringency for maintaining
anaerobic microbes.
1. addition of a reducing agent
2. use of an
anaerobic jar
3. use of an
anaerobic glove box
4. fill bottles completely with media
a.
1,2,3,4. b. 2,3,4,1.
c. 4,1,2,3 d. 3,2,1,4.
39.
The substage condenser
a.
Changes the wavelength of the light reaching the
specimen
b.
Focuses light on the specimen
c.
Decreases the amount of light reaching the specimen
d.
Increase and intensify the amount of light reaching the
specimen.
40.
Living, unstained cells and organisms can be observed
best using
a.
Fluorescent microscopy b. TEM
c. Phase
contrast microscopy d. All of the above
41.
Hanging drop method is used to observe…………………….of
microorganisms.
a.
motility b. germination c. fusion d. all
of the above
42.
Monochromatic (one color) light is sometimes used to
increase the resolution of light microscopes. Light of which color below would
give you the best resolution?
a.
Red b. Orange c. Green d. Blue
43.
Which of the following objectives would give you the
best resolution of small objects?
a.
10x air, N.A. 0.25 b. 40x air, N.A. 0.65
c. 64x
oil, N.A. 1.4 d. 100x oil, N.A. 1.25
44.
Which of the following statements is most correct about
the differential Gram stain?
a.
Crystal violet differentially stains Gram positive
cells.
b.
Gram's iodine differentially stains Gram positive
cells.
c.
Acetone differentially destains Gram negative cells.
d.
Saffron red differentially stains Gram negative cells.
45.
Phase Contrast microscopy
a.
Continuously changes the phase of the incident light
from the condenser to improve contrast in the specimen.
b.
Uses circular filters in the condenser and objective to
give contrast to parts of the cell with different refractive indices.
c.
Uses special lenses to distinguish between solid and
liquid phases of the cell.
d.
Uses special lenses to change the color of light
passing through them.
46.
Which of the following bacteria causes bacillary
dysentery?
a.
Escherichia b. Shigella c. Salmonella d. Enterobacter
47.
Which of the following bacteria doesnot contain
cellwall?
a. Bacteroids b. Fusobacterium
c. Mycoplasmas d. Xanthomonas
48.
Which of the following antibiotics inhibits bacterial
folic acid synthesis?
a. Streptomycin b. Penicillin c. D-cycloserine d. sulfadrugs
49.
___________ is a drug that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis.
a.
tetracycline b. Sulfa drugs c. penicillin d. rifampicin
50.
Penicillin and lysozyme are
similar in that.
a.
both are antibiotics b. both affect
cell walls
c. both affect the glycocalyx d. both are proteins
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