Wednesday, July 11, 2012

GEL-DOC SYSTEM


Gel-Documentation System                  
·         Gel Documentation system
·         One of the advanced techniques to visualize nucleic acids and other biomolecules
·         Simple Chemiluminescence phenomenon
·         Use of CCD image and display on computer
·         Common imaging method in Molecular Biology lab

Principle:
Principle of fluorescence With fluorescent staining of nucleic acids, a fluorescent substance that has bound to nucleic acids is excited by ultraviolet irradiation and emits fluorescent light. The fluorescent substance Ethidium Bromide binds specifically to nucleic acid and the amount of bonding depends on the molecular weight and concentration of the nucleic acid. In other words, a band for a large molecular weight or large amount will shine brighter; conversely, fluorescence will be weaker for a band for a small molecular weight or small amount.
Instrumentation:
                                      
 Figure 1: Picture of Gel-Documentation System
Optical diagram is not shown here:
Different parts in Gel-Doc System:
1.      Source of irradiation:
UV Transilluminator 20 x 20 cm, 312 nm (254 nm selectable)
2.      Base Plate
A sample tray, a gel viewer
3.      A set of filters
4.      Imaging device
A camera (CCD with high resolution) unit integrated with darkroom, camera controller, video monitor and printer.
5.      Readout system
Computerized system

Samples stained with:
1.      Fluorochrome-stained samples requiring UV excitation. E.g., EtBr, SYBR Green, SYPRO Orange, SYPRO Ruby.
2.      Samples having bands stained, using a white transilluminator. E.g., CBB, silver stain, X- ray film (without staining).
3.      Samples having membrane or TLC coloring using in-cabinet lamp. E.g., antigen-antibody reactions, various coloring reactions
For example: - Fluorescent membrane, fluorescent TLC (epi UV (AE-6932FXCF, option))
-EtBr/SYBR Green fluorescent gel (translucent UV)
-CBB/Silver staining gel (using Gel Viewer)
-Color-producing membrane/color-producing TLC (interior lamp)
-Other visualizable samples*EtBr: Etidium bromide *SYBR is registrated trademark of Molecular Probes, Inc.
In many cases: Ethidium bromide is used.
·         2,7 diamino-10-ethyl 9 phenyl phenanthridium bromide
·         Staining of DNA and RNA, first used in 1970s
·         Highly toxic and carcinogenic
·         Absorbs UV light at 254 nm, 302 nm and 366 nm.
·         Fluorescent emission at 500 nm-590 nm, peak at 590 nm (red)
·         Binds DNA and RNA
·         DNA-EtBr >DNA or EtBr
·         Depends on strandedness od DNA, molecular weight and amount
·         Strongly bound to ds DNA
·         At saturation, one molecule EtBr intercalates at every second base pair in ds DNA
·         Can detect 10 ng DNA
·         At 590nm, 1 ng DNA can be detected
·         Efficiency decreased with ss DNA and RNA
·         Concentration use: 0.5 mg/ml for 30-45 minutes at room temperature
·         Require destaining with MgSO4 (1.0 mM) for 10-15 minutes
·         At 0.1 mg/ml EtBr concentration no destaining requires.

Problems:
With continued irradiation of ultraviolet rays, the fluorescence of a band gradually weakens. This is particularly striking when the molecular weight or the amount of the sample is small. It even disappears in 20-30 seconds to about 1 minute due to ultraviolet irradiation at 254 nm (a short wavelength). The ATTO Printgraph prevents excess irradiation and can minimize ultraviolet irradiation time by pressing FREEZE button once you get a sufficient band image.


 Figure 2: DNA bands observed under Gel-Doc System 
Purpose and Analysis:
·         Photography of stained gels
·         Printout of photographic data
·         Saving of photographic data
Image data is displayed in real-time. Images still displayed can be printed out with a video printer or saved to a Compact Flash media.


Note: Before throwing gel containing EtBr, it must be autoclaved to damage its structure to neutral.

General Microbiology Multiple Choice Questions



MCQ-General Microbiology 

1.                  Cell wall synthesis during cell growth involves insertion of what material into the existing wall material.
a.                   DAP.                                                   b.         Peptidoglycan.
c.         bactoprenol.                                        d.         lipopolysaccharide.
2.                  Heat stable proteins tend to have………. which probably leads to more……..
a.                   Hydrophilic cores / ionic dispersal of particles which would normally cluster.
b.                  Hydrophobic cores / "salt bridges" between hydrophilic amino acids on the surface.
c.                   Hydrophobic cores / ionic dispersal of particles which would normally cluster.
d.                  Hydrophilic cores / "salt bridges" between hydrophilic amino acids on the surface.

3.                  The significance of Hopanoids in  the plasma membrane is that
a.                   It selectively allows some molecules to pass into the organism
b.                  It prevents movement of molecules out of the organism
c.                   It provides the elasticity to the membrane                  d.         All of the above

4.                  Arrange the following terms in the order they would be found if you traveled from the cytoplasm to the external medium of a Gram negative cell possessing a capsule:
1. periplasmic space                            2. phospholipid bilayer of the outer membrane
3. O-polysaccharide                            4. cytoplasmic membrane
5. capsule

a.                   4,3,1,2,5                                  b.         4,1,2,3,5
c.         5,2,3,1,4                                  d.         5,3,2,1,4

5.                  Osmotolerant yeasts are able to grow at high salt concentrations because their cytoplasm contains high concentrations of
a.                   High sodium ions
b.                  Amino acids.
c.                   Lipids.                                     d.         polyalcohols like glycerol

6.                  Magnetosomes, glycogen, polyphosphate and poly-beta-hydoxybutyric acid are all types of:
a.                   Storage products.       
b.                  Cytoplasmic inclusions.
c.                   Cell wall inclusions
d.                  Both b and c

7.                  Presence of sodium taulocholate in Mc Conkey agar makes the media
a.                   Differential media
b.                  Basal media
c.                   Selective media
d.                  Enriched media

8.                  What is the main function of central mesosome in Gram positive bacteria?
a.                   Site of protein synthesis.
b.                  Transport of extracelluar enzymes outside the cell wall
c.                   Taking part in cell division and DNA replication
d.                  Protect the cell membrane from injuries

9.                  The third amino acid in the peptidoglycan crosslinking chain is either diaminopamilic acid or lysine because this amino acid must
a.                   Be positively charged for a salt bridge to form.
b.                  Be hydrophillic.
c.                   Have a free amino group for peptide bond formation.
d.                  Have a large R-side chain to fill space in the cell wall.

10.              The outer membrane of Gram negative cells is more permeable than the plasma membrane because
a.                   LPS is larger than most membrane phospholipids.
b.                  Lipoproteins stretch the outer membrane.
c.                   Porin proteins establish holes in the outer membrane.
d.                  The core polysaccharide spans the lipid bilayer.

11.              The bacterial capsule
a.                   may be antigenic
b.                  is required for cell viability
c.                   is involved in motility.
d.                  may contribute to a bacterium's pathogenicity

12.              Bacterial pili may enhance virulence of bacterial pathogens by
a.                   Transporting nutrients            
b.         providing a means of attachment
c.         increasing the surface area of bacteria.          
d.         being an endotoxin

13.              An aquatic bacterium with a polysaccharide capsule for attachment and virulence is
a.                   Stella spp.                                                        b.         Caulobacter spp.
c.         Streptococcus mutans                         d.         Sphaerotilus natans

14.              Which of the following statements about bacterial flagella is incorrect?
a.                   The locomotion caused by flagella can be directed to move cells toward a source of   nutrients.
b.                  The filaments are composed of protein subunits called flagellin.
c.                   The flagella move cells by acting as propellers.
d.                  All motile bacteria have flagella
e.                   Flagella increase in length by adding new material to the tip not the base

15.              Transformation includes all of the following except
a.                   Plasmids.
b.                  Sex pili.
c.                   Competent cell.
d.                  Naked DNA.

16.              Hfr bacteria
a.                   Are derived from F + bacteria.                                               
b.                  Functions as donor in crosses with F- bacteria 40°C.
c.                   Functions as donor in crosses with F- bacteria 40°C and are so called because they result in high frequency recombination
d.                  are so called because they result in high frequency recombination

17.              Preserve foods by using salts and sugars works by
a.                   Depleting nutrients.                                        b.         Lowering osmotic pressure.
c.         Creating a hypertonic environment.    d.         Creating a hypotonic environment.

18.              Which one of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to be life long?
a.         Passive immunity                                            b.         Passive-active immunity
c.         Active immunity                                             d.         Cell mediated immunity

19.              Which one of the following is not true for virus, obligate intracellular parasites?
a.                   Viruses cannot generate energy outside of cells
b.                  Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside of cells
c.                   Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides
d.                  Enveloped viruses require host cell membrane to obtain their envelopes

20.              Each of the following statement of lysogeny is correct except
a.                   Viral genes replicate independently of bacterial genes
b.                  Viral genes responsible for lysis are repressed
c.                   Viral DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA
d.                  Some lysogenic phages encode toxins that cause human disease

21.              The genome of rhabdoviruses consists of a single-stranded RNA molecule whose sequence is complementary to the RNA sequence which functions as a messenger RNA. How is the "+ sense" messenger RNA produced in cells infected by rhabdovirus?
a.                               one portion of the infecting RNA is directly translated by host cell ribosomes
b.                  host cell RNA polymerase activity
c.                   reverse transcriptase activity
d.                  the infecting virus particle contains an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

22.              An E. coli cell which carries a lambda prophage is immune to a lytic infection by a second lambda virus because:
a.                   The second virus cannot inject its DNA
b.                  proteins from the prophage's lytic genetic program prevent replication of the second virus
c.                   proteins from the prophage's lysogenic genetic program prevent replication of the second virus
d.                  the second virus cannot adsorb to the cell

23.              Which of the following methods will not sterilize?
a.                   500 mg/L ethylene oxide at 500C for 4 hours
b.                  Dry heat at 1710C for 1 to 2 hours
c.                   1210C at 15 lb/in pressure for 15 to 20 minutes
d.                  1000C boiling water for 30 minutes

24.              Which of the following is bactericidal?
a.                   Ionizing radiation                    b.         Freeze-drying              c.         Deep freezing
d.         All of these processes kill bacteria.

25.              Which of the following is most effective for sterilizing mattresses and plastic Petri plates?
a.                   Ethylene oxide                                                b.         Glutaraldehyde
c.         Autoclave                                                        d.         Ultraviolet radiation

Use this information to answer the following question(s): Q. 26

Phenol Coefficient
Compound
Salmonella typhi
Staphylococcus aureus
Phenol
1
1
Cetylpyridinium chloride
228
337
Hexachlorophene
5-15
15-40
Merthiolate
600
62.5
Ethanol
0.04
0.04

Saturday, July 7, 2012

MCQ-Molecular Biology and Genetics


MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR M.SC. MICROBIOLOGY ENTRANCE EXAM PREPARATION, TU, 2012
(SUBJECT: MOLECULAR BIOLOGY/GENETICS)


1. The scientists who proposed 3D model of DNA
a.        Rosaline Frankline
b.       James Watson
c.        Francis crick
d.       Frederick Sanger
2. Who first discovered Nucleic acid?
a.         Friedrich Miescher
b.        P. A. Levene
c.         Erwin Chargaff
d.        Tatum
3. One complete turn of DNA molecules have ………………..base pairing with …………………diameter.
a.        10 base pairing and 10 nm
b.       12 base pairing and 6 nm
c.        10 base pairing and 34 nm
d.       One base pairing and 3.4 nm
4. Which of the following forces stabilize the DNA double helix structure?
a.        Hydrogen bonds between complementary bases
b.       Stacking interactions between bases
c.        Super-coiling structure
d.       All
5. Which of the following best describes the arrangement of the sides of the DNA molecule?
a.         twisted
b.       antiparallel
c.        super coiling
d.       alternating
6. If a DNA molecule is found to be composed of 40% thymine, what percentage of guanine would be   expected.
a.         10%
b.       20%
c.        40%
d.       80%
7. The enzymes that break hydrogen bonds and unwind DNA are:
a.         primers
b.       forks
c.        helicases
d.       polymerases
8. Okasaki fragments occur during……………… on ………………………strand.
a.        Transformation and ss RNA
b.       Replication and lagging
c.        polymerase reaction and amplifying DNA
d.       Synthesis and leading
9. Which of the following must happen first in order for DNA replication to occur?
a.        DNA polymerase binds to the leading strand
b.       DNA is unwound
c.        Hydrogen bonds form between bases
d.       chromosomes condense
10. Which of the following is required for DNA replication to occur?
a.        DNA helicase
b.       DNA ligase
c.        DNA polymerase
d.       all of these
11. DNA replication results in:
a.        2 completely new DNA molecules
b.       2 DNA molecules that each contain a strand of the original
c.        1 new DNA molecule, 1 old molecule is conserved
d.       1 new molecule of RNA
12. During replication, what enzyme adds complimentary bases?
a.        helicase
b.       synthesase
c.        replicase
d.       polymerase
13. Which one polymerase synthesize DNA molecule in Replication?
a.        Polymerase I
b.       Polymerase II
c.        Polymerase III
d.       All
14. Which one of the following choices best completes about the histones:
a.        Are basic proteins rich in lysine and or arginine
b.       Are bound covalently attached to DNA
c.        Are found in high concentration in ribosomes
d.       Are identical to protamines
15. One class of RNA characteristically contains unusual purines and pyridines is
a.        tRNA
b.       mRNA
c.        rRNA
d.       16S RNA
16. Which of the following statements about mRNA is, are correct?
a.        mRNA exists as single stranded molecule.
b.       mRNA has a 7’-methylguanosine “cap” at its 5’ end.
c.        mRNA has a 3’-poly-A sequence.
d.       All of the above
17. Which one of the following choices best completes about tRNA?
a.        Is the largest of the RNA species
b.       Has little or no secondary structure
c.        Must exist in at least 20 different forms, one for each amino acid
d.       Exists in cytosol associated with histones
18. Which one of the following molecule is not a component of the 30S initiation complex?
a.        GTP
b.       Initiation factor 2 (IF2)
c.        mRNA
d.       ATP
19. The genetic code
a.        Is degenerate in that many triplets code for more than one amino acid
b.       Is read in the direction 3’-5’
c.        Triplet CCA is found at the beginning of nearly all mRNA coding
d.       Is generally referred to as universal
20. Which one of the following plasmid codes for the production of bacteriocins ?
a.        F plasmid
b.       R plasmid
c.        Col-plasmid
d.       Virulence plasmid
21. The plaque forming lamda virus is
a.        A lytic virus
b.       A lysogenic virus
c.        A template virus
d.       None
22. The mechanism of tetracycline is to inhibit translation process by
a.        Blocking the binding of aminoacyl tRNA to A-site of ribosome
b.       Blocking initiation of RNA chains by binding to RNA polymerase
c.        Binding DNA to block the movement of RNA polymerase
d.       Preventing the transition from initiation complex to chain elongating ribosome/miscoding
23. One of the following statement best describes about the Hfr positive cell in conjugation.
a.        It is a recipient cell
b.       It is a fertile as a chromosomal segment of it is transferred to F- cell
c.        It has high frequency of recombination
d.       All
24. Short RNA primers required for DNA replication is synthesized by
a.        DNA primase
b.       DNA ligase
c.        DNA helicase
d.       DNA gyrase
25. Transcription results in:
a.        an amino acid chain
b.       messenger RNA
c.        complementary DNA
d.       okazaki fragments
26. A stretch of chromosome that codes for a trait can be called a(n):
a.        chromatid
b.       replication fork
c.        gene
d.       base-pair
27. In RNA, _____ codon(s) translate to ______ amino acid(s)
a.        1, 1
b.       3, 1
c.        3, 3
d.       1, 20
28. Translation begins:
a.         at the replication fork
b.       on the lagging strand
c.        at the start codon
d.       in the nucleus
29. A nucleotide consists of:
a.        a phosphate and a base
b.       a phosphate, and a sugar
c.        a base and an amino acid
d.       a phosphate, a sugar, and a base
30. The sugar in RNA is _____, the sugar in DNA is _______.
a.         deoxyribose, ribose
b.       ribose, deoxyribose
c.        ribose, phosphate
d.       ribose, uracil

Bacteria in Photos

Bacteria in Photos