MCQ Microbiology History

Microbial History: 

1. According to Pasteur statements which one of the following is true

a. Living organisms discriminate between stereoisomers

b. Fermentation is a aerobic process

c. Living organisms doesn’t discriminate between stereoisomers

d. Both a and b

2. “I found floating therin earthly particles, some green streaks, spirally wound serpent-wise, and orderly arranged, the whole circumstance of each of these streaks was abut the thickness of a hair on one’s head”…. These words are of

a. Leeuwenhoek

b. A. Jenner

c. Pasteur

d. Koch

3. The principle light- trapping pigment molecule in plants, Algae, and cyanobacteria is

a. Chlorophyll a

b. Chlorophyll b

c. Porphyrin

d. Rhodapsin

4. During Bio Geo chemical cycle some amount of elemental carbon was utilized by the microorganisms. The phenomenon is called as

a. Dissimilation

b. Immobilization

c. Decomposition

d. Neutralization

5. Who demonstrated that open tubes of broth remained free of bacteria when air was free of dust.

a. Abbc Spallanzani

b. John Tyndall

c. Francisco Redi

d. Pasteur

6. Reverse isolation would be appropriate for

a. a patient with tuberculosis

b. a patient who has had minor surgery

c. a patient with glaucoma

d. a patient with leukemia

7. The symptome “ general feeling of illness and discomfort “ is called

a. Cystitis

b. Malaise

c. Anaphylactic shock

d. Arthritis

8. On soybean which of the following forms symbiotism

a. Azatobactor paspali

b. Rhizobium

c. Nostoc

d. Bradyrhizobium

9. Who provide the evidence that bacteriophage nucleic acid but not protein enters the host cell during infection

a. Alfred D.Hershey & Leonard Tatum in 1951.

b. Alfred D.Hershey & Zindar Lederberg in 1951.

c. Alfred D.Hershey & Martha Chase in 1952.

d. Alfred D.Hershey & Macleod in 1952.

10. Spirulina belongs to

a. Xanthophyceae

b. Cyanophyceae

c. Rhodophyceae

d. Pheophyceae

11. The first antibody to contact invading microorganisms was

a. IgG

b. IgM

c. IgA

d. IgD

12. The light emitted by luminescent bacteria is mediated by the enzyme

a. Coenzyme Q

b. Luciferase

c. Lactose dehydrogenase

d. Carboxylase reductase

13. Pick out the vector using in human Genome project

a. Phagemid vector

b. Yeast artificial chromosomes

c. Cosmid vectors

d. Yeast episomal plasmids

14. Salt and sugar preserve foods because they

a. Make them acid

b. Produce a hypotonic environment

c. Deplete nutrients

d. Produce a hypertonic environment

15. In a fluorescent microscope the objective lens is made of

a. Glass

b. Quartz

c. Polythene

d. None of these

16. Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen is by means of

a. Biological process

b. Lightening

c. Ultraviolet light

d. All of the above

17. Which one of the following fungi is the most serious threat in a bone marrow transplant unit?

a. Candida albicans

b. Aspergillus

c. Blastomyces

d. Cryptococus

18. Direct microscopic count can be done with the aid of

a. Neuberg chamber

b. Anaerobic chamber

c. Mineral oil

d. Olive oil

19. The image obtained in a compound microscope is

a. Real

b. Virtual

c. Real inverted

d. Virtual inverted

20. Enzymes responsible for alcoholic fermentation

a. Ketolase

b. Zymase

c. Peroxidase

d. Oxidase

21. Which type of spores are produced sexually?

a. Conidia

b. Sporangiospores

c. Ascospores

d. None of these

22. Bacterial transformation was discovered by

a. Ederberg and Tatum

b. Beadle and Tatum

c. Griffith

d. None of these

23. Father of microbiology is

a. Louis Pasteur

b. Lister

c. A.V. Leeuwenhock

d. Robert Koch

24. The antiseptic method was first demonstrated by

a. Lwanowski

b. Lord Lister

c. Edward Jenner

d. Beijerinck

25. Small pox vaccine was first discovered by

a. Robert Koch

b. Louis Pasteur

c. Lister

d. Edward Jenner

26. The term mutation was coined by

a. Pasteur

b. Darwin

c. Hugo devries

d. Lamark

27. Compound microscope was discovered by

a. Antony von

b. Pasteur

c. Johnsen & Hans

d. None of these

28. Father of Medical Microbiology is

a. Pasteur

b. Jenner

c. Koch

d. A.L. Hock

29. Disease that affects many people at different countries is termed as

a. Sporadic

b. Pandemic

c. Epidemic

d. Endemic

30. Prophylaxis of cholera is

a. Protected water supply

b. Environmental sanitation

c. Immunization with killed vaccines

d. All of these

31. In electron microscope, what material is used as an objective lens?

a. Magnetic coils

b. Superfine glass

c. Aluminium foils

d. Electrons

32. The main feature of prokaryotic organism is

a. Absence of locomotion

b. Absence of nuclear envelope

c. Absence of nuclear material

d. Absence of protein synthesis

33. The stalked particles on the cristae of mitochondria are called

a. Glyoxysomes

b. Peroxisomes

c. Oxysomes

d. Spherosomes

34. Antiseptic methods were first introduced by

a. Lord Lister

b. Iwanowski

c. Beijernick

d. Edward Jenner

35. Kuru disease in Humans is caused by

a. Bacteria

b. Viroides

c. Prions

d. Mycoplasma

36. A mutation that produces termination codon is

a. Mis-sense mutation

b. Neutral mutation

c. Non-sense mutation

d. Reverse mutation

37. During conjunction the genetic material will be transferred through

a. Cell wall

b. Medium

c. Pili

d. Capsule

38. Antiseptic surgery was discovered by

a. Joseph Lister

b. Ernest Abbe

c. Pasteur

d. Beijerink

39. Tuberculosis is a

a. Water borne disease

b. Air borne disease

c. Food borne disease

d. Atthropod borne disease

40. Phagocytic phenomenon was discovered by

a. Louis Pasteur

b. Alexander Fleming

c. Metchnikof

d. Robert Koch

41. Meosomes are also known as

a. Mitochondria

b. Endoplasmic reticulum

c. Plasmids

d. Chondroids

42. Hybridoma technique was first discovered by.

a. Kohler and Milstein

b. Robert Koch

c. ‘D’ Herelle

d. Land Steiner

43. The minimum number of bacteria required to produce clinical evidence of death in a susceptible animal under standard condition is called

a. LD50

b. ID

c. MLD

d. All of these

44. In Electron Microscope source of electrons is from

a. Mercury lamp

b. Tungsten metal

c. both a and b

d. None of these

45. Griffith (1928) reported the phenomenon of transformation first in

a. H. influenzae

b. Bacillus species

c. Pneumococci

d. E.coli

46. The resolution power of the compound microscope is

a. 0.2 micron

b. 0.2 millimeter

c. 0.2 Angstrom units

d. 0.2 centimeter

47. The capacity of a given strain of microbial species to produce disease is known as

a. Pathogen

b. Virulence

c. Infection

d. None of these

48. Monoclonal antibodies are associated with the name of

a. Burnet        

b. Medwar

c. Milstein kohler

d. Owen

49. Lederberg and Tatum (1946) described the phenomena of

a. Conjunction

b. Transformation

c. Mutation

d. Plasmids

50. Hanging drop method for motility study was first introduced by

a. Robert Koch

b. Louis Pasteur

c. Jenner

d. Leeuwenhock

Note: For answers contact me

(Citation from: Sagar G.V. (2008) MCQs in Microbiology, New Age International (P) Limited Publishers )

M. Sc. Entrance Preparation Question based on M.Sc. Microbiology, TU

IMMUNOLOGY MCQ EXAM

1. All of the following are true with respect to IgM antibodies EXCEPT which one 

A.    they fix complement 

B.     they occur on the surface of lymphocytes 

C.     they predominate in the primary response to antigen 

D.    they are glycoproteins 

E.     they mediate allergic reaction 

2. One principal function of complement is to 

A.    inactivate perforins 

B.     mediate the release of histamine 

C.     Bind antibodies attached to cell surfaces and to lyse these cells 

D.    phagocytize antigens 

E.     cross link allergens 

3. One principal function of the Class I and Class II major histocompatibility complex S proteins is to 

A.    transduce the signal to the T-cell interior following antigen binding 

B.     mediate immunoglobulin class switching 

C.     present antigen for recognition by the T-cell antigen receptor 

D.    stimulate production of interleukins 

E.     bind complement 

4. The major role of the complement system is to work in conjunction with 

A.    antibodies to lyse cells via the C8 and C9 components 

B.     the major histocompatibility complex for cell recognition 

C.     antibodies to opsonize cells 

D.    the T-cell receptor for production of lymphokines 

E.     antibodies to lyse cells via the perforin molecules 

5. T-cell antigen receptors are distinguished from antibodies by which of the following 

A.    T-Cell receptors are glycosylated 

B.     T-cell receptors must interact with antigen uniquely presented by other cells but not with free antigen 

C.     T-Cell receptors bind various cytokines 

D.    T-Cell receptors bind complement to lyse cells 

E.     T-cell receptors are mediators of allergic reactions 

6. T-cell receptors or antibodies react with antigens 

A.    because both are made by lymphocytes 

B.     because of complementary of molecular fit of both with antigen 

C.     because both 'have light chain and heavy chain polypeptides 

D.    cause histamine release 

E.     facilitate perforin release 

7. All of the following are true of antigen EXCEPT which one of the following? 

A.    They contain epitopes. 

B.     They will react with antibodies. 

C.     They contain antigenic determinants. 

D.    They can elicit an immune response. 

E.     They contain paratopes. 

8. All of the following are true with respect to IgE molecules, EXCEPT which one? 

A.    They are the principal immunoglobulin class involved in allergic reactions. 

B.     They are involved in mediating anti-parasitic immune responses. 

C.     They will cross the placenta and fix complement. 

D.    They can effect the release of histamine and other chemical mediators. 

E.     They are the least abundant immunoglobulin in the serum. 

9. Which of the following immunoglobulins is present normally in plasma at the highest concentration? 

A.    IgG 

B.     IgM 

C.     IgA 

D.    IgD 

E.     IgE 

10. All of the following are true about antibodies, EXCEPT which one? 

A.    They fix complement. 

B.     They occur on the surface of B-lymphocyte 

C.     They predominate the primary immune response to antigen. 

D.    They are glycoproteins. 

E.     They are molecule with a single, defined amino acid sequence. 

11. The major immunoglobulin family to which a particular immunoglobulin belongs can be determined by sequential analysis of the 110 amino acids beginning from the 

A.    Amino terminus of the light chain. 

B.     Carboxy terminus of the light chain. 

C.     Amino terminus of the heavy chain. 

D.    Carboxy terminus of the heavy chain. 

E.     None of the above 

12. The immunoglobulin Joining chain (J-chain) is 

A.    only produced by T-Cells 

B.     only produced by neutrophils 

C.     associated with only multimeric forms of lgM and IgA 

D.    associated with IgE for histamine release 

E.     only produced by mast cells 

13. All of the following are true EXCEPT 

A.    An epitope is a small portion of a macromolecule 

B.     the variable region domains contain the antigen recognition site 

C.     an antigenic determinant is a paratope 

D.    The class of an immunoglobulin is determined by its heavy chain 

E.     An IgG antibody is bivalent 

14. Which immunoglobulin is the principal one found in secretions such as milk? 

A.    IgG 

B.     IgM 

C.     IgA 

D.    IgD 

E.     IgE 

15. Individuals unable to make the J protein found in certain immunoglobulins would be expected to have frequent infections of the 

A.    brain. 

B.     blood. 

C.     liver. 

D.    pancreas. 

E.     intestinal tract. 

16. Which of the following statements best characterizes an antibody? 

A.    An antibody contains high molecular weight RNA as its basic structure. 

B.     An antibody is composed of protein and cannot be distinguished from the albumin fraction of the serum proteins. 

C.     An antibody is composed of four identical protein subunits which may be caused to dissociate by treatment with urea. 

D.    An antibody contains protein as its major chemical component and its synthesis may be elicited by the administration of a foreign protein or polysaccharide. 

E.     An antibody contains mucopolysaccharides as its major chemical component and the synthesis of these may be elicited by the administration of a foreign protein or polysaccharide. 

17. The immunoglobulin class which is the least abundant in the normal adult is 

A.    IgG 

B.     IgA 

C.     IgM 

D.    IgD 

E.     IgE. 

18. Class switching of immunoglobulins occurs 

A.    Usually with booster immunizations, going from IgM to IgG 

B.     binds complement 

C.     causes the histamine release 

D.    mediates immunoglobulin class switching 

E.     results in the glycosylation of immunoglobulins 

19. When a B-cell undergoes immunoglobulin class switching 

A.    the variable region of the light chain changes, but its constant region remains the same 

B.     the variable region of the light chain remains the same, but its constant region changes 

C.     the variable region of the heavy chain remains the same but its constant region changes 

D.    the variable region of the heavy chain changes but its constant region remains the same 

E.     both the variable and constant regions change 

20. The class of an immunoglobulin 

A.    is determined by Class I and Class II major histocompatibility complex proteins 

B.     is determined by the carbohydrate attached to the light chain is 

C.     determined by the antigen 

D.    is determined by the heavy chain type 

E.     Is determined by the J-chain 

21. The class of an immunoglobulin is determined by

A.    the variable region 

B.     the J-chain 

C.     the heavy chain 

D.    the carbohydrate 

E.     the T3 polypeptide complex 

22. Light chains are 

A.    specific for each class of antibody 

B.     not specific for each class of antibody 

C.     reactive with antigen 

D.    have only a constant region 

E.     are composed only of carbohydrate 

23. Each of the following is a characteristic of antibodies, EXCEPT which one? 

A.    they are proteins with variable and constant regions 

B.     they contain carbohydrates 

C.     they are only secreted by T-cells 

D.    they can combine very specifically with antigen 

E.     they are structurally organized in globular domains 

24. The T3 complex of the T-cell receptor 

A.    probably functions to transduce a signal to the cell's interior following binding of complexed antigen 

B.     binds complement 

C.     causes the histamine 

D.    mediates Immunoglobulin class switching 

E.     results in the glycosylation of immunoglobulins 

25. Cytokines are produced by cells of the immune system in response to various physiological stimuli 

A.    modulate cell function through subsequent cell differentiation or cell proliferation 

B.     facilitate cell lysis 

C.     cause glycosylation of Immunoglobins 

D.    cause histamine release 

E.     facilitate perforin release 

26. Which of the following uniquely distinguishes the T-cell receptor (TCR) from an antibody?  

A.    The TCR can bind an antigen fragment only in a trimolecular complex with either the class I or class II surface proteins of the major histocompatibility complex 

B.     The TCR can function as a cell surface antigen receptor 

C.     The TCR is composed of two different types of polypeptide chains 

D.    The TCR is capable of participating in a cytotoxic reaction. 

E.     The TCR polypeptides are composed of domains - an amino terminal variable portion at determines the binding specificity and a constant portion that determines the class of the polypeptide chain. 

27. Which of the following is NOT true of interleukins? 

A.    They are cytokines which can be produced by various cells of the immune system. 

B.     They are hormones which allow one cell to communicate with another cell. 

C.     They are in need of receptors on the target cell in order to mediate their effects. 

D.    They are able bind antigen with a high level of specificity. 

E.     They are able to modulate various aspects of the B-cell arm of immune system.

28. Which of the following is NOT true of T4 and T8 cell markers? 

A.    These are both surface glycoproteins expressed on T-cells. 

B.     These serve to distinguish different types of T-cells, e.g., helper, suppressor and cytotoxic, from each other. 

C.     These are not found associated with immunoglobulins. 

D.    The T4 proteins serve both to mediate T-cell helper function as well as the receptor for the AIDS virus. 

E.     Both of the markers are present on ALL T-cells.

29. Which of the following is NOT true of the ability of the T-cell receptor (TCR) to specifically recognize antigen? 

A.    The antigen must be "processed" first by an accessory cell of immune system in order for it to bind to the TCR. 

B.     The recognition of the antigen by the TCR can mediate helper, suppressor or cytotoxic function. 

C.     The recognition of antigen by the TCR can result in cytokine secretion and/or an increase in cell proliferation within the immune system. 

D.    The antigen is recognized by the T3-TCR complex only when it is associated with a protein of the major histocompatibility complex 

E.     Only the alpha chain of the TCR is necessary for antigen 

 30. For the following questions, choose:

A.    if only 1,2, and 3 are true

B.     if only 1 and 3 are true

C.     if only 2 and 4 are true

D.    if only 4 is true

E.     if all are true

 

 31. Complement fixation 

                        1. can be modified by the Cholera toxin 

                        2. has intrinsic Guanylate cyclase activity 

                        3. can be desensitized by phosphorylation 

                        4. is an effector function of IgG and IgM following antigen binding 

32. IgE is 

                        1. An allergy associated immunoglobulin 

                        2. the least abundant immunoglobulin in the plasma 

                        3. binds to mast cells 

                        4. can cross the placental barrier 

33. IgE 

1. is produced by mast cells 

2. is produced by B-cells 

3. is produced by T-cells 

4. binds to mast cells 

34. Which of the following are true statements 

1. IgM and IgG can fix complement 

2. IgA is a secretory immunoglobulin 

3. IgE mediates immediate hypersensitivity 

4. IgD provides most passively acquired maternal immunity

 

35. IgE is 

1. An immunoglobulin associated with some kinds of allergic reactions 

2. the least abundant typo at antibody synthesized 

3. associated with tle mast cell for histamine release 

4. produced during the primary immune response before class switching

36. Antibodies are 

1. Immunoglobulins 

2. composed of variable and constant region domains 

3. made of heavy and light chains 

4. glycoproteins 

37. The antigenic determinate 

1. is the combining site of an antibody 

2. is usually no more than five or six amino acids of the antigen 

3. is the paratope 

4. Consists of a small topological feature of the antigen

38. A critical property of an antigen is 

1. Its ability to stimulate an immune response 

2. a unique topotogical feature called an paratope 

3. a unique topological feature called an epitope 

4. not a unique topological feature called an antigenic determinant 

39. An antigenic determinant is 

1. a small topological feature of a large macromolecule such as A protein or carbohydrate 

2. specifically recognized by a epitope 

3. specifically recognized by a paratope 

4. specifically recognized by the T4 protein 

40. Immunoglobins 

1. are antibodies 

2. are classified into five major classes, i.e., IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, IgE 

3. have a molecular specificity to recognize unique epitope 

4. possess both variable and constant region domains

41. The basic monomeric Immunoglobulin unit is 

1. composed of four; polypeptide chains 

2. only an integral membrane protein and never secreted 

3. one of five major classes 

4. synthesized by a T-cell without carbohydrate

42. Antibodies 

1. are carbohydrates 

2. are made from alpha and beta chains 

3. contain no carbohydrate 

4. contain heavy and light chains 

43. The basic monomeric immunoglobulin unit is 

1. composed of four polypeptides chains 

2. representative of a single protein type for all antibody classes 

3. able to associate with J- chain to form multimers in some cases 

4. the same structure as the T-cell antigen receptor 

44. The basic monomeric form of an immunoglobulin 

1. is a tetramer consisting of two light and two heavy chains 

2. is associated with J-chain in the IgD 

3. can occur as multimers with IgA and IgM 

4. exists only on the cell surface of B-cells

 

45. Class II MHC proteins are 

1. Recognized by the T4 (or CD4) protein 

2. used to mark a cell for killing by cytotoxic T-cells 

3. used to participate in helper function 

4. not able to carry an antigen fragment 

46. The major histocompatibility complex proteins function to 

1. degrade T4 and T8 polypeptides 

2. bind antibody for lymphokine production 

3. bind complement for cell lysis 

4. bind antigen fragments for presentation to T-cells

47. Class I MHC proteins are 

1. able to carry an antigen fragment 

2. recognized by the T8 (or CD8) protein 

3. used in combination with an antigen fragment to mark a cell for killing by cytotoxic T-cells 

4. used' to participate in helper function 

48. Which Is TRUE for BOTH the T-cell antigen receptor and the antibody 

1. They undergo class switching 

2. They can be secreted 

3. They possess J-chains 

4. They can exist as cell surface receptor, integral membrane proteins. 

49. The T-cell antigen receptor and antibody share the following features 

1. They contain variable and constant region domains 

2. They both possess paratopes that can recognize epitopes 

3. They are associated with accessory proteins necessary for signal transduction after antigen recognition 

4. They are multivalent 

50. Which properties do the T-cell receptor and the antibody share in common 

1. Both recognize antigen or antigen fragments 

2. Both are able to fix complement 

3. Both are composed of multiple polypeptide chains folded into discrete domain units 

4. Both are composed of four polypeptide chains 

51. The antigen combining site of the T-cell receptor and antibody are 

1. located at the amino terminal of the structures 

2. a pocket complementary' to the epitope 

3. capable of combining with a single antigenic determinant 

4. identified by light chain kinase